Did Mary menstruate? If so, was she unclean? (original) (raw)

After a perusal of several catholic websites, the overall conclusion was that Mary did not menstruate. Why is this? Because according to Lev. 15:19-24, while a woman is menstruating, she is unclean. But, since Catholicism says that Mary was sinless and the ever-virgin who bore Jesus, then she could not have been unclean. Therefore, she did not menstruate. Wow.

Every firstborn male is holy to the Lord.

First of all, this line of reasoning does not fit scripture, which says that every firstborn male who opens the womb is holy to the Lord, not just Jesus. If Mary had to be sinless to bear Jesus, who was holy, then why does Scripture say that every firstborn male that opens the womb is holy to the Lord? Now, they might respond and say being “holy to the Lord” is not the same thing as bearing God in the flesh. True, it isn’t. But the issue is Mary’s ability to bear Jesus, even if she was a sinner. Of course, she could. A woman’s status as a sinner still did not negate the firstborn males being “holy to the Lord.” There was an attachment of holiness to them. Furthermore, Jesus’ holiness is not dependent upon her. The catholic view of Mary is nothing more than a promotion of idolatry.

Exodus 13:2, “Sanctify to Me every firstborn, the first offspring of every womb among the sons of Israel, both of man and beast; it belongs to Me.”
Luke 2:23, “(as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “Every firstborn male that opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord”)

Mary made a sin offering.

Second, Mary had to make a sin offering according to the Law. This means she was not sinless, as the Catholics mistakenly assert.

Leviticus 12:2, 6–8, “Speak to the sons of Israel, saying: ‘When a woman gives birth and bears a male child, then she shall be unclean for seven days, as in the days of her menstruation she shall be unclean.”… 6 When the days of her purification are completed, for a son or for a daughter, she shall bring to the priest at the doorway of the tent of meeting a one year old lamb for a burnt offering and a young pigeon or a turtledove for a sin offering. 7 ‘Then he shall offer it before the Lord and make atonement for her, and she shall be cleansed from the flow of her blood. This is the Law for her who bears a child, whether a male or a female. 8 ‘But if she cannot afford a lamb, then she shall take two turtledoves or two young pigeons, the one for a burnt offering and the other for a sin offering; and the priest shall make atonement for her, and she will be clean.'” “
Luke 2:21–23, “And when eight days had passed, before His circumcision, His name was then called Jesus, the name given by the angel before He was conceived in the womb. 22 And when the days for their purification according to the Law of Moses were completed, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord 23 (as it is written in the Law of the Lord, “Every firstborn male that opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord”),”

Joseph, and “multiply to fill the earth.”

One of the purposes of marriage was to multiply and fill the earth (Genesis 1:28). Undoubtedly, Mary’s family would have been aware that she never menstruated. This would mean that she could not bear children. So, why then would Joseph want to marry her since he could not have had children with her? We can’t assign motives to Joseph, but this would be a serious issue for a faithful Jew. In light of this, it would make more sense to say that Mary was a normal woman who menstruated.

Mary is a functioning goddess in Catholicism.

The Catholics have elevated Mary to such a high level that she is a functioning goddess who never sinned, who never menstruated, and who can simultaneously hear millions of prayers spoken and thought in different languages all over the world. And, amazingly, she can answer them, too. If that isn’t a functioning goddess, I don’t know what is.

Conclusion

To say that Mary never menstruated because it would make her unclean, who then could not have born the Messiah, fails for several reasons. 1) every firstborn male that opens the womb is holy to the Lord, not just Jesus. (Exodus 13:2; Luke 2:23). 2) Mary made a sinful offering due to her menstruation, which made her unclean, according to the Old Testament Law (Leviticus 12:2, 6–8; Luke 2:21–23). 3) The command to multiply and fill the earth would have been taken seriously by Joseph, a faithful Jew (Genesis 1:28). With Mary having never menstruated, he would have known he could not fulfill that command with her. Why, then, would he marry her in the first place? We can’t assign him motives, but it is a question worth examining.

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